As you all know, there are a couple ways to view the overall structure of the Bible and the plan of redemption, which more times than not, determines how one formulates their eschatological position. Now, I'm the first one to say that I'm not an expert in eschatology, nor do I profess to be a hermeneutical scholar of the first order. But that's not to say that I don't attempt a sober evaluation on a given biblical position.
Having said that, I have an issue with premillenialism (actually, I have a few, but that's for another time). Now I really don't subscribe to any eschatological position because I find there are some issues with them all. But one of the main issues I have with premillenialism is the idea that in the millenium (1000 year reign of Christ on earth) there will be a return to Old Testament types and shadows (not all subscribe to this). And after reading an excerpt from Kim Riddlebarger's book The Case for Ammillenialsim [which he posted on his blog the other day] (HERE), I can't help but truly find fault with this position. Riddlebarger observes,
" Once Christ has come and fulfilled these particular prophetic expectations, how can the dispensationalist justify his belief that the future millennial age is characterized by a redemptive economy of type and shadow, when the reality to which these things pointed, has already come? This pre-messianic Old Testament millennial expectation, complete with restored temple worship and the reinstitution of animal sacrifices, can only be justified by a redemptive historical U-turn...According to dispensationalists, type and shadow are fulfilled in Jesus Christ who, in the millennial age, supposedly re-institutes these same types and shadows which are inferior and have passed away."
I said it above, I'm no expert; and I'm really looking for someone to help me out here. But how can one answer Riddlebarger's claim? I mean, doesn't Hebrews 10 seemingly annihilate this position? While I'm aware that the main purpose of the argument in favor partially stems from the idea that the Temple in Ezekiel 40-48 has yet to be fulfilled. And in these chapters you find specific detailed references to a Temple that has "yet" to be built which speak to the reinstitution of animal sacrifices and the like. But when Hebrews 10:1 says, or since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities, it can never, by the same sacrifices that are continually offered every year, make perfect those who draw near."
The author of Hebrews point: Only Christ can make perfect those who draw near.
So here's my question: Why would God re-institute the types and shadows [in the millennium] that he has clearly did away with (cf. Heb 10:2, 9);something which was only to pointed to Christ in the first place?
There is obviously much more to consider when it comes to this element of their overall schema. And I'm aware that not all premillenials subscribe to this. I'd encourage you to read Riddlebarger's whole post to get a better idea of how this interpretation is explained. But this is the gist of it, and I can't seem to reconcile this with most of what the NT has to say about who Christ was and what he came to do.
Perhaps those with a little background can weigh in here.